Human Genome Biology Multiple Choice Questions Example

Multiple Choice Questions Assignment

1. What can change DNA into thymine dimers and sometimes a mutations results?

a) Radio waves
b) EMS (ethyl methane sulfonate)
c) Visible light
d) Ultraviolet light
e) None of the above

2. You run the following DNA fragments through gel. Which is the slowest?

a) Fragment size 16
b) Fragment size 3
c) Fragment size 24
d) Fragment size 19
e) Fragment size 11

3. Frameshift mutation is associated with:

a) Incorporate a different amino acid
b) Production of a stop signal
c) No change in the amino acid incorporated
d) Adding or deleting a multiple of three bases
e) Adding or deleting not a multiple of three bases

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4. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is associated with:

a) Frameshift mutation
b) Nonsense mutation
c) Missense mutation
d) Silent mutation
e) Deletion mutation

5. Which will cause much larger problems?

a) A change in two bases
b) A change in five bases
c) A change in four bases
d) All the above
e) None of the above

6. A change in one base will change the local sequence and often result in :

a) AUG
b) UGG
c) UGU
d) UAG
e) UUC

7. Silent mutations are most common in:

a) First position of codon
b) Second position of codon
c) Third position of codon
d) All the above
e) None of the above

8. A female carrier for red-green colorblindness mates with a male with the trait:

a) 25% colorblind 75% normal
b) 50% carrier 50% normal
c) 75% colorblind 25% normal
d) 25% carrier 50% normal
e) 50% colorblind 25% normal

9. A patient has a normal phenotype with increased risk of having a child with HD:

a) 45 CAG repeat copies
b) 15 CAG repeat copies
c) 25 CAG repeat copies
d) 35 CAG repeat copies
e) 20 CAG repeat copies

10. Hydroxyurea increases expression of _____:

a) HbA (hemoglobin A)
b) HbF (hemoglobin F)
c) HbS (hemoglobin S)
d) All the above
e) None of the above

11. Barr body is associated with:

a) Changes in carbohydrates
b) Changes in lipids
c) Changes in proteins
d) All the above
e) None of the above

12. SRY positive is associated with:

a) Conventionally female
b) Klinefelter syndrome
c) Turner syndrome
d) All the above
e) None of the above

13. More serious cases of cholera if infected with Vibrio cholerae:

a) Type A blood
b) Type B blood
c) Type O blood
d) Type AB blood

14. Features such as retardation of fetal growth, microcephaly, development of subnormal intelligence, or being born with a heart defect are associated :

a) Excessive glutamine levels
b) Excessive tyrosine levels
c) Excessive leucine levels
d) Excessive tryptophan levels
e) Excessive phenylalanine levels

15. Testicular feminization is associated with:

a) Low levels of testosterone from testes
b) Low levels of estrogen from ovaries
c) Low levels of testosterone from the adrenals
d) Low levels of estrogen from adrenals
e) None of the above

16. Proto-oncogenes are also known as:

a) Tumor promoter genes
b) Tumor suppressor genes
c) DNA repair genes
d) All the above
e) None of the above

17. The following are not like cancer cells:

a) Cells inside intestines
b) Bone marrow cells
c) Lowest layer of your skin
d) Germ cells
e) None of the above

18. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS) is associated with:

a) SOX9 (R—spondin1)
b) Fallopian tubes develop
c) AR (androgen receptor gene)
d) Wollfian ducts
e) None of the above

19. Ovary is not formed when:

a) Mullerian ducts shrink away
b) Increased SRY
c) Decreased SOX9
d) All the above
e) None of the above

20. Which is not found on the same chromosome?

a) Hereditary hemochromotosis
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Wilson’s disease
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

21. Which is not found on the long arm of a chromosome:

a) Narcolepsy
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Achondroplasia
d) Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva
e) None of the above

22. Jimmy has a fever of 110 degrees Fahrenheit, HR > 125 and sever muscle contractions. Previous medications that could have caused his condition are:

a) Drugs for asthma and drugs for gastroesophageal reflux disease
b) Drugs for diabetes mellitus and for hypertension
c) Drugs for urinary tract infection and for pneumonia
d) Drugs for schizophrenia and for bipolar disorder
e) Drugs for pain and for paralysis prior to a surgical procedure

23. Himalayan rabbit is exposed to 50 degrees Celcius. The following is expected to occur:

a) Pigments are inactive and fur is brown
b) Pigments are active and fur is white
c) Pigments are inactive and fur is white
d) Pigments are active and fur is brown
e) None of the above

24. The sex of the American Crocodile is determined by temperature. Select the true statements.

a) 88-91 F and female
b) 82-88 F and male
c) < 82 F and alive
d) All the above

25. This protects against malaria:

a) Hexosaminidase
b) Beta glucosiadase
c) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
d) Sinilinase
e) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

26. Short-tailed weasel is similar to _____:

a) Drosophila melongaster
b) American crocodile
c) Himalayan rabbit
d) All the above
e) None of the above

27. ETS that lead to tumor development under the control of testosterone:

a) DNA repair genes
b) Tumor suppressor genes
c) Proto-oncogenes
d) All the above
e) None of the above

28. In the spring and summer, it had a dark coat, to match the brown dirt in its environment. In the fall and winter, it turns white, to match the surrounding snow. This description is about:

a) American crocodile
b) Arctic fox
c) Drosophila melongaster
d) All the above
e) None of the above

29. Night blindness is not caused by:

a) Defect in rod photoreceptor
b) Vitamin A deficiency
c) Decreased production in rhodospin
d) Missense mutations causing retinitis pigmentosa
e) None of the above

30. Due to redundancy in the code (occurs in the 3rd position of codon):

a) Silent mutation
b) Nonsense mutation
c) Missense mutation
d) Deletion mutation
e) Frameshift mutation

31. Defect in SRY gene:

a) Girl with female karyotype
b) Boy with male karyotype
c) Girl with male karyotype
d) Boy with female karyotype
e) None of the above

32. Sperm with Y chromosome containing SRY fertilizes egg with X containing defective AR:

a) Descended testes with no ovaries, no cervix or no uterus
b) Undescended testes with ovaries, cervix and uterus present
c) Descended testes with ovaries, cervix and uterus present
d) Undescended testes with no ovaries, no cervix or no uterus
e) None of the above

33. In embryonic female, the structure that develops into ovaries:

a) Indifferent gonads
b) Mullerian ducts
c) Wolffian ducts
d) All the above
e) None of the above

34. Kuru, a lethal human neurodegenerative diseases, was found to be transmitted between members of the Fore tribe in New Guinea via cannibalism:

a) Nucleic acid
b) Carbohydrate
c) Lipid
d) Protein
e) None of the above

35. Which of the following is associated with a defect in immune system?

a) Celiac disease
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Mutations in adenosine deaminase gene
d) All the above
e) None of the above

36. Which of the following is not associated with neurotransmitters?

a) Violent outbursts and aggression
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Huntington’s disease
d) Bipolar disorder
e) Anxiety disorder

37. Which of the following mechanisms of loss of heterozygosity is referred to as “reduplication of loss”?

a) Mutation
b) Deletion
c) Rescue of trisomy
d) Mitotic recombination
e) None of the above

38. A patient has p53 mutations present and APC mutations present. What is most likely to occur?:

a) Single polyp and localized
b) No polyps forms
c) Multiple polyps and localized
d) Metastatic cancer
e) It depends on the temperature

39. Which forms of cancer treatment kills dividing cells?

a) Surgery
b) Irradiation
c) Chemotherapeutic drugs
d) All the above
e) None of the above

40. Antibodies are used to recognize specific proteins. They tell whether such proteins are present on surface of tumor cells or present in bodily fluids such as serum, saliva, tears or urine. These are associated with:

a) PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
b) FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization)
c) Chromosome painting
d) Proteomics
e) None of the above

41. Which is not associated with DNA repair defects?

a) Bloom syndrome
b) Ataxia telangiectasia
c) Fanconi anemia
d) Xeroderma pigmentosa
e) Retinoblastoma

42. Which of the following is not associated with androgen receptor gene?

a) CAIS (complete androgen insensitivity syndrome)
b) Huntington’s disease
c) Spinal bulbar atrophy
d) Prostate cancer
e) All the above

43. Sarah (Rh negative) has had a previous pregnancy in which she delivers an Rh positive child by vaginal delivery. What should you do?

a) Do not give RhoGAM
b) No risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn
c) Give RhoGAM because risk of hemolytic disease of newborn
d) No maternal antibodies were produced. Don’t worry.
e) It depends on whether or not the delivery is a C-section.

44. Which is not associated with diet?

a) Spongiform encephalopathy
b) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
c) Creuzfeldt-Jacob disease
d) All the above
e) None of the above

45. Gynecomastia is seen in:

a) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b) Turner syndrome
c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
d) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
e) None of the above

46. High levels of both testosterone and estrogen are associated:

a) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b) Turner syndrome
c) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
e) None of the above

47. They are sterile due to testicular atrophy:

a) XXX female
b) XYY male
c) XO female
d) XXY male
e) None of the above

48. Which of the following is a carrier for hemophilia (h=hemophilia)?

a) Xh Xh
b) Xh Y
c) X X
d) X Y
e) Xh X

49. Which of the following is associative with cystic fibrosis?

a) Sex linked
b) Autosomal dominant
c) Autosomal recessive
d) All the above
e) None of the above

50. Which of the following is not associated with tumor suppressor genes?

a) Retinoblastoma
b) Li-Fraumeni syndrome
c) Adenomatous polyposis coli
d) Von-Hippel-Landau disease
e) None of the above

Essay/Short Answer Questions Assignment

51. Describe the different types of mutations.

The DNA gene sequence can be changed in various ways. These mutations have different effects on health, depending on changes in the key proteins’ functions and place of occurrence (Richards, Hawley, & Mori, 2005). Mutation types include missense, nonsense, frameshift mutations, as well as duplication.
Missense mutation promotes changes in one couple of bases of DNA that lead to the replacement of one amino acid with another in the protein made by a gene.

Nonsense mutation is a change of the only couple of bases of DNA. Instead of replacing one amino acid with another, the changed sequence of DNA prematurely signals about cages to stop protein creation. This type of a mutation leads to the truncated protein that can function incorrectly (Richards et al., 2005).
Duplication consists of part of DNA that has to copy incorrectly one or several times. This type of a mutation can change the function of the received protein (Richards et al., 2005).
The frameshift mutation is possible if one losses/adds the basis of changes in DNA. Every single code includes three groups.

52. Explain Huntington’s disease phenotype of different CAG repeat copy numbers.

Huntington disease (HD) is the reason for the extension of the treatise of a polyglutamine and leads to a large necrosis of cells of patients with HD. Ability to make certain for the patients with HD is genetically corrected. It will provide the same genetic backgrounds (Santos, Pena, & Epplen, 1993).

53. Compare and contrast Klinefelter’s syndrome versus and Turner’s syndrome.

Klinefelter’s syndrome appears due to trisomy of kind (2n+1) while Turner’s syndrome happens because of (2n-1) monosomy. In the case of Klinefelter’s syndrome, genetic sex is XXY and is commonly female because of two X chromosomes (Stenson et al., 2014). In Turner syndrome, XO is genetically sexless. In Klinefelter’s syndrome, an individual has 47 chromosomes within (44+XXY). On the contrary, in Turner’s one, the individual has 45 chromosomes (44+X). In the first, there is gonadal sex with testes present, but atrophied. In Turner’s one, there is an outward appearance and phenotype female. In the case of Klinefelter’s syndrome, clinical symptoms may include male with enlarged breasts and degenerating testes. In Turner’s, there are poorly developed breasts and short stature (Stenson et al., 2014).

54. Explain the factors involved in sexual differentiation.

Sex means different things. Sex in the biological field is usually attributed to combinations of genes to make genetically various descendants. Sexual reproduction differs from asexual reproduction that leads to identical cells. Asexual reproduction is usually found in prokaryotes though they also have some mechanisms of a gene recombination (conjugation, transformation) (Richards et al., 2005).

55. Describe how mutations can cause cancer.

There are two main types of genetic mutations: acquired and inborn. The acquired mutations are the most frequent cause of cancer. These mutations are the result of genes damage and they are not transferred from the parent to the child. Tobacco use, ultra-violet radiation, viruses, and age can cause mutations and damage genes. A cancer that arises because of the acquired mutations is called a sporadic cancer (Ledford, 2012).

Many genes that promote development of cancer get broad categories:

• Tumor protective genes. As a rule, they limit the growth of cells and the speed of sharing on new cells to restore discrepancy of DNA (Ledford, 2012).
• Oncogenes transform a healthy cell to a cancer cell. It provides growth and spread of the cancer in some cancer cells of a breast cancer, cancer of an ovary, and family genes of RAS. Mutations in these genes are usually not inherited (Ledford, 2012).